Thursday, July 16, 2009
KJV Dellema
Help me to understand! If a Church is a KJV only church, does that mean that if a Preacher who uses another version, would not be allowed to preach there? If that be true, should a KJV Preacher expect to be allowed to preach at a Church where other versions are allowed? and also if ether do differently are they really what they say they are? Just wondering!
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First, I've never met a "KJV only" preacher or teacher. We are "static equivalence translation of the received text only" preachers. That's a lot to say. Basically, any translation that isn't a "thought for thought" or "paraphrase" of the Received Text is good. You see, we believe the Received Text (that which was received as God's Word by churches for centuries, AKA the Majority Text) is God's Word.
ReplyDeleteThe new Greek Texts (critical texts) which were compiled and NEVER before in existence until the 1800s by Wescott/Hort, Nestle/Aland, etc. can not be God's Word. They should not, therefore, be translated from.
After clearing that up, let me attempt to answer your questions.
I would do everything in my power (in a Christian way and with love) to keep a preacher from preaching out of a false version of the Bible in our church. If they want to use the KJV to preach, so be it.
I do not know of any churches that are ANTI-KJV, but I'm sure if they are out there, they wouldn't want me to preach there since I preach only from the King James Version Bible.
I don't know what your last question meant "also if either do differently are they really what they say they are?" What were you asking there?
To clarify, any translation of the Received Text (NT) and Masoretic Text (OT) which is not a thought for thought or paraphrase is a good translation.
ReplyDeleteFrom what I've seen, most preachers tend to respect the wishes of the church they are going to. In other words, if a church is KJV-only (Sorry James...I'm going to use that terminology because it's a lot less typing!!! Ha!), then most preachers will use the KJV because they are generally not anti-KJV. Furthermore, most churches that use different translations also respect the usage of the KJV, so there is no problem there.
ReplyDeleteNow, I'm not sure if I've made sense, but maybe you understand what I'm saying.
I took the "also if either do differently are they really what they say they are" question to mean something like whether a person really believes what he claims if he preaches at a church that has the opposite belief. For example, a "KJV-only" preacher preaching at a non-KJV church. Is he really what he says he is? Is that the intent of the question?
ReplyDeleteBro. James Charles set it our right - there is a family of corrupt versions from the Westcott/ Hort and Nestle/Aland tradition. Since they are different from the Majority Text, they cannot both be the same true Bible.
ReplyDeleteOf course I would preach at a church that uses other Bible versions. Especially if the pastor asked me to present a KJV conference or if it were a debate. :-) I am still what I say I am.
ReplyDelete